ISTQB_training_questions

Q1. Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluating the testability of the requirements and the system?

  • Testing implementation and execution
  • Test Analysis
  • Test Analysis and Design ✔
  • Test Planning and control

Q2. What is a Test condition?

  • An item or event of a component or system that could be verified by one or more test cases ✔
  • A condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective that must be met or possessed by a system or system component to satisfy a contract, standard, specification, or other formally imposed document.
  • An approach to testing in which test cases are designed based on test objectives and test conditions derived from requirements.
  • A set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results, and execution post conditions.

Q3. Which is the IEEE standard for Software Test documentation?

  • IEEE 829 ✔
  • IEEE 827
  • IEEE 828
  • IEEE 8295

Q4. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

  • Determining test approach ✔
  • Evaluating entry criteria
  • Preparing Test Specifications
  • Measuring and Analyzing results

Q5. Which of the following is a fundamental test activity?

  • Test design and Implementation
  • Test Implementation and Execution
  • Test Planning and design ✔
  • Evaluating Test plan

Q6. Which is not an exit criteria measure?

  • Cost
  • Time
  • No of resources ✔
  • Fault found or coverage

Q7. Defects occur not because of?

  • Complexity of Infrastructure
  • Execution of software by changing hardware conditions
  • System interactions
  • Changed technologies ✔

Q8. What is true of a Quality system?

  • It is secure
  • It meets specified requirements, and customer needs ✔
  • It costs more than other systems with the same feature
  • It was delivered on time and budget

Q9. A programmer writes and executes unit tests against code that he has written. Which of the following is a tester mindset that the programmer should adopt to perform unit testing effectively?

  • Good communication skills
  • Code coverage
  • Probe effect
  • Attention to detail ✔

Q10. Test control is done to compare project progress?

  • At the initial stage of the project plan
  • when defining the entry and exit criteria of the project
  • When defining the entry criteria
  • throughout the project ✔

Q11. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account:-

  • i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
  • ii. Project constraints such as time and budget 
  • iii. Size of Testing Team 
  • iv. Size of the Development Team
  • i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
  • i, iv are true and ii is false
  • i, ii are true and iii, iv are false ✔
  • ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Q12. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

  • i. Determining the scope and risks and identifying the objectives of testing. 
  • ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, test ware) 
  • iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, and interface)
  • iv. Determining the exit criteria.
  • a) i, ii, iv are true, and iii is false ✔
  • b) i, iv are true and ii is false
  • c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
  • d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Q13. Which of the following factors have a SIGNIFICANT influence on the test approach?

  • i. The SDLC 
  • ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects 
  • iii. The identified product risks 
  • iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing v. The test environment setup
  • a) i, ii have significant influence
  • b) i, iii, iv have significant influence ✔
  • c) ii, iv, v have significant influence
  • d) iii, v have significant influence

Q14. Consider the following rule: "For every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity". In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

  • a) Only in sequential SDLC models
  • b) Only in iterative SDLC models
  • c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models
  • d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models ✔

Q15. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

  • a) in ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format
  • b) in ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented
  • c) in ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software ✔
  • d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Q16. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

  • a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders
  • b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written
  • c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing
  • d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process ✔

Q17. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

  • 1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user's business needs
  • 2. Failures in communication between components
  • 3. Failures in logic in a module
  • 4. Failures in not correctly implementing business rules

  • A. Component testing
  • B. Component integration testing
  • C. System testing
  • D. Acceptance testing

  • a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C ✔
  • b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A
  • c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
  • d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Q18. Which of the following are the advantages of DevOps?

  • i. Faster product release and faster time to market
  • ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
  • iii. Constant availability of executable software
  • iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
  • v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

  • a) i, ii, iv are advantages
  • b) iii, v are advantages
  • c) i, iii are advantages ✔
  • d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Q19. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. Which of the following activities CAN be performed in the initial phases of the SDLC?

  • a) Dynamic test execution
  • b) Static testing ✔
  • c) Test planning ✔
  • d) Acceptance test execution
  • e) Maintenance testing

Q20. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

  • a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level
  • b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective
  • c) For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity
  • d) For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity ✔

Q21. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

  • a) Component Test-Driven Development
  • b) Integration Test-Driven Development
  • c) System Test-Driven Development
  • d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development ✔

Q22. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

  • a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices
  • b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation
  • c) End users' understanding of the development and test processes is improved ✔
  • d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Q23. The navigation system software has been updated because it suggests routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

  • a) Only confirmation testing
  • b) Confirmation testing then regression testing ✔
  • c) Only regression testing
  • d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Q24. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

  • a) Behavior-Driven Development ✔
  • b) Test Level Driven Development
  • c) Function-Driven Development
  • d) Performance-Driven Development

Q25. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

  • a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach
  • b) Retrospectives allow testers to identify successful activities so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future ✔
  • c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment
  • d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Q26. Which of the following is an example of a defect that can be found by static testing but NOT by dynamic testing?

  • a) Lack of usability provided through the user interface 
  • b) Code with no path that reaches it ✔
  • c) Poor response times for most of the expected users 
  • d) Required features that are not implemented in the code

Q27. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

  • a) Managers are aware of which developers are less productive 
  • b) It allows project managers to prioritize their stakeholder interactions
  • c) It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues ✔
  • d) End users better understand why the delivery of the work product is delayed

Q28. Given the following task descriptions:

  • 1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected 
  • 2. Everyone has access to the work product 
  • 3. Anomalies are identified in the work product 
  • 4. Anomalies are discussed And the following review activities
  • A. Individual review
  • B. Review initiation
  • C. Planning
  • D. Communication and analysis

Which of the following BEST matches the task descriptions and activities?

  • a) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
  • b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
  • c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D
  • d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D ✔

Q29. Given the following roles in reviews:

  • 1. Scribe
  • 2. Review leader
  • 3. Facilitator
  • 4. Manager

The following responsibilities in reviews:

  • A. Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up a safe review environment
  • B. Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting
  • C. Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review
  • D. Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place

Which of the following BEST matches the roles and responsibilities?

  • a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C
  • b) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D
  • c) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C ✔
  • d) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

  • a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC ✔
  • b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing 
  • c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing 
  • d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Q31. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

  • a) It improves the test process for future projects
  • b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks
  • c) It provides a measure for the quality of changes
  • d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings ✔

Q32. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

  • There is the role of a scribe
  • The main purpose is to evaluate the quality
  • The meeting is led by the author of the work product
  • There is individual preparation
  • A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

  • a) Informal review
  • b) Walkthrough
  • c) Technical review ✔
  • d) Inspection

Q33. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

  • a) Participants should dedicate adequate time to the review
  • b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense ✔
  • c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants
  • d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Q34. Which of the following CANNOT be examined by static testing?

  • a) Contract
  • b) Test plan
  • c) Encrypted code ✔
  • d) Test charter

Q35. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

  • 1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
  • 2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
  • 3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
  • 4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
  • 5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

  • a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1 
  • b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2 ✔
  • c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 
  • d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Q36. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

  • a) The defect types found by static testing are different from the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing ✔
  • b) Dynamic testing can detect the defect types that can be found by static testing plus some additional defect types
  • c) Dynamic testing can identify some of the defects that can be found by static testing but not all of them
  • d) Static testing can identify the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing as well as some extra defect types

Q37. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

  • a) Manager
  • b) Moderator ✔
  • c) Chairperson
  • d) Review Leader

Q38. Which one of the following is not a valid use of decision coverage?

  • Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program
  • Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a Business Process
  • Checking that all decisions are based on numeric value ✔
  • Checking that at least 100% decision coverage has been achieved

Q39. Which one of the following statements holds true if a program has 100% decision coverage in a test?

  • Every output equivalence class has been tested.
  • Every executable statement is covered.
  • The “Dead” code has not been covered. ✔
  • Every input equivalence class has been covered.

Q40. Consider the following code:

If(A AND B)
Print(“Ans1”)
Else if(B AND C)
Print(“Ans2”)
Else if(C AND D)
Print(“Ans3”)
Else
Print(“Ans4”)

Q40a. How many unique test cases are required to completely achieve condition coverage?

  • 3
  • 4
  • 2
  • 6 ✔

Q40b. How many unique test cases are required to completely achieve statement coverage?

  • 3
  • 4
  • 2
  • 6 ✔

Q40c. How many unique test cases are required to completely achieve MCDC coverage?

  • 10
  • 7 ✔
  • 8
  • 9

Q41. Create an Equivalence class and perform BVA on the following scenario.
Test the input Age for a college admission whose minimum age requirement is 18 and the maximum is 60.

Q41a. How many unique test cases are required to completely cover all Equivalence classes?

  • 3 ✔
  • 4
  • 2
  • 5

Q41b. How many unique test cases are required to completely cover all Boundary conditions?

  • 3
  • 4 ✔
  • 6
  • 5

Q42. From the mentioned conditions, which is the most suitable answer to cover all the possible decisions:

  • Test path 1: A, B, D, E, G ✔
  • Test path 2: A, B, D, E, F, G ✔
  • Test path 3: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G
chaituinformativeblogs_ISTQB

Q43. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirements:
REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount. 
Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

  • a) White-box test techniques
  • b) Black-box test techniques ✔
  • c) Experience-based test techniques
  • d) Risk-based test techniques

Q44. You are designing test cases based on the following decision table.



So far you have designed the following test cases:

  • TC1: 19-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category A 
  • TC2: 65-year-old, unregistered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category B 
  • TC3: 66-year-old, registered man with no experience; expected result: category C 
  • TC4: 65-year-old, registered woman with 4 years of experience; expected result: category D

Which of the following test cases, when added to the existing set of test cases, will increase the decision table coverage?

  • a) 66-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category B 
  • b) 55-year-old, unregistered woman with 2 years of experience; expected result: category A 
  • c) 19-year-old, registered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category D ✔
  • d) No additional test case can increase the already achieved decision table coverage

Q45. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

  • a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story 
  • b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story
  • c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation 
  • d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used ✔

Q46. You have just started designing test cases for the following user story.

As a customer, I want to be able to filter search results by price range, so that I can find products within my budget more easily. Acceptance criteria:

  • 1. The filter should work for all versions of the application from version 3.0 upwards 
  • 2. The filter should allow the customer to set a price range with a minimum and a maximum price 
  • 3. The search results should update dynamically as the customer adjusts the price range filter

in all test cases the precondition is as follows: there are only two products available, products A and B. Product A costs $100 and product B costs $110. 

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story? 

  • a) Enter the webpage and set a filter to show prices between $90 and $100. Expected result: results show product A only. Set the maximum price to $110. Expected result: results now include both products A and B ✔
  • b) Enter the webpage. Expected result: the default minimum and maximum prices are $100 and $110 respectively. Add product C to stock, with a price of $120. Refresh the client’s webpage. Expected result: the default maximum price changes to $120 
  • c) Enter the webpage and set a filter to show prices between $90 and $115. Expected result: results show both products A and B. Change currency from USD to EUR. Expected result: the filter range changes correctly to EUR values, according to the current exchange rate 
  • d) Enter the webpage with three different browsers: Edge, Chrome, and Opera. In each browser set filter between $90 and $110. Expected result: results include both products A and B and the results layout is the same in all three browsers.

Q47. You are testing a temperature control system for a horticultural cold storage facility. The system receives the temperature (in full degrees Celsius) as the input. If the temperature is between 0 and 2 degrees inclusive, the system displays the message “temperature OK”. For lower temperatures, the system displays the message "temperature too low" and for higher temperatures, it displays the message “temperature too high”.

Using two-value boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary value coverage?

  • a) –1, 3 
  • b) 0, 2 
  • c) –1, 0, 2, 3 
  • d) –2, 0, 2, 4 ✔

Q48. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning? 

  • Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed
  • Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested
  • Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories ✔
  • Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning ✔

Q49. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

  • Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours 
  • Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours 
  • Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

  • 9 person-hours
  • 14 person-hours
  • 11 person-hours
  • 10 person-hours ✔

Q50. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

  • TC 003
  • TC 005 ✔
  • TC 002
  • TC 001

Q51. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

  • 1. Usability testing
  • 2. Component testing
  • 3. Functional testing
  • 4. Reliability testing
  • A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
  • B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business-facing, supporting the development team
  • C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
  • D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants? 

  • a) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D
  • b) 1D, 2A, 3C, 4B
  • c) 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A
  • d) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A ✔

Q52. During a risk analysis, the following risk was identified and assessed:

  • Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
  • Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
  • Response to risk:
  • An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
  • A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

  • a) Risk Acceptance
  • b) Contingency plan
  • c) Risk mitigation ✔
  • d) Risk transfer

Q53. Given the following risks:

  • Ineffective loop implementation causes long system responses
  • Consumers change their preferences
  • Flooding of the server room

Patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports and the following mitigation activities:

  • Risk acceptance
  • Performance testing
  • Using boundary value analysis as the test technique
  • Risk transfer

Which of the following BEST matches the risks with the mitigation activities?

  • 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
  • 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
  • 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C ✔
  • 1C, 2A, 3D, 4B

Q54. Which of the following is a product quality metric?

  • Mean time to failure
  • Number of defects found
  • Requirements coverage
  • Defect detection percentage ✔

Q55. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

  • To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests
  • To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”
  • To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report
  • To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level ✔

Q56. What does the test pyramid model show?

  • That tests may have different priorities
  • That tests may have different granularity ✔
  • That tests may require different coverage criteria
  • That tests may depend on other tests

Q57.Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

  • All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version-controlled ✔
  • All changes in the test environment elements are tracked
  • All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans
  • All identified defects have an assigned status

Q58. The team wants to estimate the time needed for one tester to execute four test cases for a software component. The team has gathered the following measures of the effort used to execute a single test case:

  • Best-case scenario: 1 hour
  • Worst-case scenario: 8 hours
  • Most likely scenario: 3 hours

Given that the three-point estimation technique is being used, what is the final estimate of the time needed to execute all four test cases?

  • a) 14 hours ✔
  • b) 3.5 hours
  • c) 16 hours
  • d) 12 hours

Q59. How can the testing quadrants be beneficial for testing?

  •  They help in test planning by dividing the test process into four stages, corresponding to the four basic test levels: component, integration, system, and acceptance testing
  • They help in assessing the high-level coverage (e.g., requirements coverage) based on low-level coverage (e.g., code coverage)
  • They help non-technical stakeholders understand the different types of tests and that some test types are more relevant to certain test levels than others ✔
  • They help agile teams to develop a communication strategy based on classifying people according to four basic psychological types, and on modelling the relations between them

Q60. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%. What is the risk impact?

  • $500
  • $2,000 ✔
  • $50,000
  • $200

Q61. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

  • a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention
  • b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found
  • c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it
  • d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period ✔

Q62. Given the following test tool categories:

  • i. Collaboration tools
  • ii. DevOps tools
  • iii. Management tools
  • iv. Non-functional testing tools
  • v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

  • a) i, v
  • b) ii, iv
  • c) i, iii, v
  • d) ii, iii, iv ✔

Q63. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a risk of test automation?

  • The detection of additional high-severity defects
  • Providing measures that are too complicated for humans to derive
  • Incompatibility with the development platform ✔
  • Substantially reduced test execution times

Q64. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

  • It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive
  • It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor
  • It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results
  • It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code ✔

Q65. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects, and configuration management?

  • Test execution and coverage tools
  • Test design and implementation tools
  • Defect management tools
  • Test management tools ✔

Q66. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

  • The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis
  • The achievement of increased coverage through a more objective assessment
  • The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power
  • The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability ✔